Login or Register for FREE!
Login or Register for FREE!
Comparing 2023 General class pool with 2019 General class pool
  • Removed questions: 80
  • New questions: 57
  • Updated questions: 121
  • Previous Total questions: 454
  • Total questions: 425
Subelement G1
COMMISSION’S RULESCommission's Rules
  • Removed questions: 14
  • New questions: 7
  • Updated questions: 10
  • Total questions: 54
Section G1A
General class control operator frequency privileges; primary and secondary allocations
  • Removed questions: 8
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
On which HF/MF bands is a General class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?
  • 60 meters, 20 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
  • 160 meters, 80 meters, 40 meters, and 10 meters
  • 160 meters, 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
  • 160 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
REMOVED
Which of the following frequencies is in the General class portion of the 40-meter band (in ITU Region 2)?
  • 7.250 MHz
  • 7.500 MHz
  • 40.200 MHz
  • 40.500 MHz
REMOVED
Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 75-meter phone band?
  • 1875 kHz
  • 3750 kHz
  • 3900 kHz
  • 4005 kHz
REMOVED
Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 20-meter phone band?
  • 14005 kHz
  • 14105 kHz
  • 14305 kHz
  • 14405 kHz
REMOVED
Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 80-meter band?
  • 1855 kHz
  • 2560 kHz
  • 3560 kHz
  • 3650 kHz
REMOVED
Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General class license?
  • 28.020 MHz
  • 28.350 MHz
  • 28.550 MHz
  • All these choices are correct
REMOVED
What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?
  • Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference
  • Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
  • Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
  • Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting
REMOVED
Which of the following may apply in areas under FCC jurisdiction outside of ITU Region 2?
  • Station identification may have to be in a language other than English
  • Morse code may not be permitted
  • Digital transmission may not be permitted
  • Frequency allocations may differ
- NEW -
On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?
  • 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
  • 160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
  • 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
  • 80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?
  • 160 meters
  • 30 meters
  • 17 meters
  • 12 meters
On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?
  • 160 meters
  • 30 meters
  • 20 meters
  • 12 meters
Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?
  • 11 meters
  • 12 meters
  • 30 meters
  • 60 meters
- NEW -
On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?
  • 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
  • 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
  • 21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
  • All these choices are correct
was G1A12
Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Serviceamateur service as a secondary user on a band?
  • Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
  • Amateur stations canmay use the band only during emergencies
  • Amateur stations can use the band only if they do not cause harmfulmust not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference tofrom primary users
  • Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24- hour use of the band
- NEW -
On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?
  • 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
  • 28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
  • 28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
  • The entire band
- NEW -
Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?
  • All HF bands
  • 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
  • All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
  • 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?
  • 14250 kHz
  • 18155 kHz
  • 21300 kHz
  • 24900 kHz
was G1A15
What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?
  • The entire band
  • The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
  • The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
  • The portion above 29.5 MHz
When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?
  • The lower frequency portionend
  • The upper frequency portionend
  • The lower frequency endportion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper endportion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
  • The upper frequency endportion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower endportion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
Section G1B
Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur practice; beacon operation; prohibited transmissions; retransmitting radio signals
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?
  • Ensure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
  • Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
  • Monitor the frequency before transmitting
  • All these choices are correct
What is the maximum height above ground to which for an antenna structure may be erected not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?
  • 50 feet
  • 100 feet
  • 200 feet
  • 300 feet250 feet
With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?
  • A No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station locationnot use automatic control
  • The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
  • The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
  • All these choices are correctThere must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location
Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?
  • Observation of propagation and reception
  • Automatic identification of repeaters
  • Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radioamateur radio licensees
  • All these choices are correctIdentifying net frequencies
Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations??
  • Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
  • Retransmission Automatic retransmission of other amateur station signals by any amateur station
  • Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from U.S.US government stations
  • CodedEncrypted messages of any kind, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?
  • Unidentified test transmissions of less than one minute10 seconds in duration
  • Transmissions necessary to assist with learning the International Morse code
  • Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio useAmateur Radio use
  • All these choices are correct
Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate Amateur Radioamateur radio antenna structures?
  • Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
  • At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
  • Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 10001,000 feet from the structure
  • Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?Amateur Service?
  • Only "Q"“Q” signals are permitted
  • They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
  • They are not permitted
  • They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rulesOnly "10 codes" are permitted
was G1B12
When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?
  • Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
  • When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
  • When Only when the contact is with amateurs in any licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a countryas long as the communication is conducted in English
  • Only when the foreign contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?
  • On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
  • On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
  • 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
  • 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
What is the power limit for beacon stations?
  • 10 watts PEP output
  • 20 watts PEP output
  • 100 watts PEP output
  • 200 watts PEP output
Who or what determines "“good engineering and good amateur practice,",” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?
  • The FCC
  • The control operator
  • The IEEE
  • The ITU
Section G1C
Transmitter power regulations; data emission standards; 60-meter operation requirements
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 9
REMOVED
Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?
  • Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
  • Power must be limited to 200 watts when using data transmissions
  • Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
  • Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
REMOVED
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?
  • 56 kilobaud
  • 19.6 kilobaud
  • 1200 baud
  • 300 baud
REMOVED
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?
  • 56 kilobaud
  • 19.6 kilobaud
  • 1200 baud
  • 300 baud
REMOVED
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?
  • 56 kilobaud
  • 19.6 kilobaud
  • 1200 baud
  • 300 baud
What is the maximum transmittingtransmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?
  • 200 watts PEP output
  • 1000 watts PEP output
  • 1500 watts PEP output
  • 2000 watts PEP output
What is the maximum transmittingtransmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?
  • 50 watts PEP output
  • 200 watts PEP output
  • 1500 watts PEP output
  • An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radioamateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?
  • 2.8 kHz
  • 5.6 kHz
  • 1.8 kHz
  • 3 kHz
was G1C12
Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?
  • If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
  • You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
  • You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
  • You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?
  • 100 watts PEP output
  • 1000 watts PEP output
  • 1500 watts PEP output
  • 2000 watts PEP output
What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?
  • 200 watts PEP output
  • 1000 watts PEP output
  • 1200 watts PEP output
  • 1500 watts PEP output
was G1C13
What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?
  • Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
  • Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
  • Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
  • Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
was G1C14
What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?
  • 1500 watts PEP
  • 10 watts RMS
  • ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
  • ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
was G1C15
What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power? output?
  • RMSRMS output from the transmitter
  • AverageRMS input to the antenna
  • ForwardPEP input to the antenna
  • PEPPEP output from the transmitter
Section G1D
Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner Coordinators; temporary identification; element credit; remote operation
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician class license examination?
  • Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
  • Receipt of a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class
  • Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
  • An FCC General class or higher license and VEC accreditation
Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired Amateur Radioamateur radio license?
  • Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
  • Anyone who held an FCC-issued Amateur Radioamateur radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years ago
  • Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
  • Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
What license examinations may you administer when you are as an accredited VE Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?
  • General and Technician
  • General onlyNone, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
  • Technician only
  • Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have a an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?
  • Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
  • Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee paymentyour license arrives in the mail
  • On any General or Technician class band segment
  • On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?
  • At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher VEs must observe the examination
  • At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher VEs must be present
  • At least two General Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Amateur Extra class
  • At least three VEs Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher must observe the examination
- NEW -
When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?
  • A US operator/primary station license
  • Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
  • Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
  • A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician class licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?and have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website?
  • Whenever youthey operate using General class frequency privileges
  • Whenever youthey operate on any amateur frequency
  • Whenever youthey operate using Technician frequency privileges
  • A special identifier is not required if yourtheir General class license application has been filed with the FCC
Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?
  • The Federal Communications Commission
  • The Universal Licensing System
  • A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
  • The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S.US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
  • The person must be a resident of the U.S.US for a minimum of 5 years
  • The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radioamateur radio license of General class or above
  • The person'’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
  • None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S.US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
  • 30 days
  • 180 days
  • 365 days
  • For as long as your current license is valid
What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
  • 12 years16 years
  • 18 years
  • 21 years
  • There is no age limit
What action is required to obtain a new General Classclass license after a previously- held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?
  • They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
  • There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
  • Contact the FCC to have the license reinstatedThe applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the U.S. showing his or her name and address
  • The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
- NEW -
When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?
  • Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
  • Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
  • Only those of the remote station’s country
  • Only those of the FCC
Section G1E
Control categories; repeater regulations; third-party rules; ITU regions; automatically controlled digital station
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 11
Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in statingsending a message overvia an amateur station?
  • The third party'’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
  • The third party is not a U.S.US citizen
  • The third party is speaking in a language other than Englisha licensed amateur
  • All these choices are correctThe third party is speaking in a language other than English
When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?
  • Under no circumstances
  • Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
  • Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
  • Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?
  • The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
  • The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
  • No third-party traffic may be transmitted
  • The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra Classclass license
Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radioamateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?
  • When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
  • When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
  • When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
  • All these choices are correct
What types of are the restrictions on messages for sent to a third party in anothera country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?may be transmitted by an amateur station?
  • They must relate to emergencies or disaster reliefAny message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
  • Only messages They must be for other licensed amateurs
  • Only messages relating to Amateur RadioThey must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
  • Any messages, as long as the textThe message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the message is third party must be recorded in the station log
The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?
  • Region 4
  • Region 3
  • Region 2
  • Region 1
In what part of the 13-centimeter 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?
  • Anywhere in the band
  • Channels 1 through 4
  • Channels 42 through 45
  • No part
What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?
  • 100 milliwatts
  • 10 watts
  • 100 watts
  • 1500 watts
Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24. 930 and 28.200 MHz?
  • A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
  • A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
  • These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
  • These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?
  • On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
  • Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
  • Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
  • Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
- NEW -
When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?
  • Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
  • Under no circumstances except for emergencies
  • Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
  • Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
Subelement G2
OPERATING PROCEDURESOperating Procedures
  • Removed questions: 10
  • New questions: 11
  • Updated questions: 13
  • Total questions: 60
Section G2A
Phone operating procedures;: USB/LSB conventions;, breaking into a contact, transmitter setup for voice operation; answering DX stations; VOX operation
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 12
Which sidebandmode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?
  • Upper sideband
  • Lower sideband
  • VestigialSuppressed sideband
  • Double sideband
Which of the following modes mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter,-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?
  • Upper sideband
  • Lower sideband
  • VestigialSuppressed sideband
  • Double sideband
Which of the following mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
  • Upper sideband
  • Lower sideband
  • VestigialSuppressed sideband
  • Double sideband
Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?
  • Upper sideband
  • Lower sideband
  • VestigialSuppressed sideband
  • Double sideband
Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?
  • Frequency modulation
  • Double sideband
  • Single sideband
  • Phase Single phase modulation
Which of the following is an advantage whenof using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?
  • Very high -fidelity voice modulation
  • Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
  • Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
  • Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband (SSB)?voice mode?
  • Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
  • Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
  • SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter,-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
  • SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter,-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
What is the recommended way to break in to into a phone contact?
  • Say "QRZ"Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
  • Say your call sign once
  • Say "Say “Breaker Breaker”"
  • Say "CQ"Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter,-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?
  • Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
  • Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
  • Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
  • It is good commonly accepted amateur practice
Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?
  • The received signal is more natural sounding
  • It allows "“hands free"” operation
  • It occupies less bandwidth
  • It provides more power output
Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states who calls "calling “CQ DX”?"?
  • Any caller is welcome to respond
  • Only stations in Germany
  • Any stations outside the lower 48 states
  • Only contest stations
What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur a single sideband transceiver?
  • The RF clipping level
  • Transmit audio or microphone gain
  • Antenna inductance or capacitance
  • Attenuator level
Section G2B
Operating courtesyeffectively; band plans; emergencies, including drills and emergencies; RACES operationemergency communications
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?
  • Only when transmitting in RACES
  • At any time when transmitting in an organized net
  • At any time during an actual emergency
  • Only on authorized HF frequencies
REMOVED
What frequency should be used to send a distress call?
  • Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
  • Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
  • Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
  • Only frequencies used by police, fire, or emergency medical services
Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?
  • Nets always have priority
  • QSOs in progress always have priority
  • Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
  • Contest operations must always should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?
  • ContinueInform your local emergency coordinatorcommunication because you were on the frequency first
  • Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
  • Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distressChange to a different frequency
  • Immediately cease all transmissions
What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact and you notice creating interference from other stations onusing the frequency?
  • TellAdvise the interfering stations to change that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
  • Decrease power and continue to transmitReport the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
  • Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
  • Switch to the opposite sidebandIncrease power to overcome interference
When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?
  • 5 to 50 Hz5 Hz to 50 Hz
  • 150 to 500 Hz150 Hz to 500 Hz
  • 1 to 3 kHz1 kHz to 3 kHz
  • 3 to 6 kHz3 kHz to 6 kHz
When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?
  • 5 to 50 Hz5 Hz to 50 Hz
  • 150 to 500 Hz150 Hz to 500 Hz
  • Approximately 3 kHz2 kHz to 3 kHz
  • Approximately 6 kHz
What is a practical way to How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?
  • Send "QRL?"“QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
  • Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
  • Send the letter "V"“V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say "test"“test” several times and listen for a response
  • Send "QSY"“QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce "“the frequency is in use,",” then give your call sign and listen for a response
Which of the following complies with good commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?
  • Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clearCheck to see if the channel is assigned to another station
  • Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
  • Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
  • All these choices are correct
What is the voluntary band plan restriction for U.S.US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?
  • Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
  • Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
  • Only digital contacts
  • Only SSTV contacts
Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?
  • Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
  • Only a RACES net control operator
  • A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
  • Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
- NEW -
Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?
  • Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
  • Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
  • Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?
  • No more than 1 hour per month
  • No more than 2 hours per month
  • No more than 1 hour per week
  • No more than 2 hours per week
Section G2C
CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals and common abbreviations: ; full break-in
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 11
Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy CW operation (QSK)?
  • Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”"BK"
  • Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
  • An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
  • Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”"QRS?"
  • Send slower
  • Change frequency
  • Increase your power
  • Repeat everything twice
What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN"“KN” at the end of a transmission?
  • No US stations should callListening for novice stations
  • Operating full break-in
  • Listening only for a specific station or stations
  • Closing station now
What does the Q signal "QRL?"“QRL?” mean?
  • "“Will you keep the frequency clear?”?"
  • "“Are you operating full break-in?" or "?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”?"
  • "“Are you listening only for a specific station?”?"
  • "“Are you busy?" or "?” or “Is this frequency in use?”?"
What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?
  • The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
  • The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
  • At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
  • At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
What does the term "“zero beat"” mean in CW operation?
  • Matching the speed of the transmitting station
  • Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
  • Sending without error
  • Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
When sending CW, what does a "C"“C” mean when added to the RST report?
  • Chirpy or unstable signal
  • Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
  • 100 percent copy
  • Key clicks
What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
  • SK
  • BK
  • AR
  • KN
What does the Q signal "QSL"“QSL” mean?
  • Send slower
  • We have already confirmed the contactby card
  • I have received and understoodI acknowledge receipt
  • We have worked before
What does the Q signal "QRN"“QRN” mean?
  • Send more slowly
  • Stop sending
  • Zero beat my signal
  • I am troubled by static
What does the Q signal "QRV"“QRV” mean?
  • You are sending too fast
  • There is interference on the frequency
  • I am quitting for the day
  • I am ready to receive messages
Section G2D
Volunteer MonitoringMonitor Program; HF operations
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Volunteer Monitoring Program?
  • Identification of out-of-band operation
  • Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC rules
  • Identification of different call signs
  • Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
What is the Volunteer MonitoringMonitor Program?
  • Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
  • Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
  • Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
  • Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer MonitoringMonitor Program?
  • To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
  • To provide emergency and public safety communicationsTo encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
  • To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
  • To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rulesTo provide emergency and public safety communications
- NEW -
What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?
  • Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
  • Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
  • Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
  • All these choices are correct
Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
  • A map that shows accurate land masses
  • A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particularspecific location
  • A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
  • A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
Which of the following is a good way to indicate on a clear frequency in the HF phone bands indicates that you are looking for a an HF contact with any station?
  • Sign your call sign once, followed by the words "“listening for a call"” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
  • Say "QTC"Say “QTC” followed by "“this is"” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
  • Repeat "CQ"“CQ” a few times, followed by "“this is,",” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
  • Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by "“this is"” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "“long-path"” contact with another station?
  • Toward the rising sun
  • Along the gray linegrayline
  • 180 degrees from the station'’s short-path heading
  • Toward the north
Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?
  • Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
  • Adam, Boy, Charles, David
  • America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
  • Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
What is a reason why Why do many amateurs keep a station log?
  • The ITUThe FCC requires a log of all international contacts
  • The ITUThe FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
  • The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
  • To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?
  • Submit a log to the contest sponsor
  • Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
  • Identify your station per according to normal FCC regulations
  • All these choices are correct
What is QRP operation?
  • Remote piloted model control
  • Low-power transmit operation
  • Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
  • Traffic relay procedure net operation
- NEW -
Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?
  • To allow each station to operate according to conditions
  • To be sure the contact will count for award programs
  • To follow standard radiogram structure
  • To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
Section G2E
Digital mode operating procedures
  • Removed questions: 7
  • New questions: 7
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 15
REMOVED
How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?
  • Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
  • Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
  • Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
  • Send the message, "Is this frequency in use?"
REMOVED
What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?
  • Frequent retries or timeouts
  • Long pauses in message transmission
  • Failure to establish a connection between stations
  • All these choices are correct
REMOVED
What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions (avoiding the DX propagation beacons)?
  • 14.000 - 14.050 MHz
  • 14.070 - 14.112 MHz
  • 14.150 - 14.225 MHz
  • 14.275 - 14.350 MHz
REMOVED
What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?
  • 3570 - 3600 kHz
  • 3500 - 3525 kHz
  • 3700 - 3750 kHz
  • 3775 - 3825 kHz
REMOVED
Which of the following is characteristic of the FT8 mode of the WSJT-X family?
  • It is a keyboard-to-keyboard chat mode
  • Each transmission takes exactly 60 seconds
  • It is limited to use on VHF
  • Typical exchanges are limited to call signs, grid locators, and signal reports
REMOVED
Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?
  • PL-259
  • Type N
  • Type SMA
  • DE-9
REMOVED
Which communication system sometimes uses the internet to transfer messages?
  • Winlink
  • RTTY
  • ARES
  • SKYWARN
Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?
  • USB
  • DSB
  • CW
  • LSB
- NEW -
What is VARA?
  • A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
  • A digital protocol used with Winlink
  • A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
  • DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
- NEW -
What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?
  • Frequent retries or timeouts
  • Long pauses in message transmission
  • Failure to establish a connection between stations
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?
  • Always call on the station’s frequency
  • Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
  • Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
  • Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
What is the standard sideband used to generate a for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK? in any amateur band?
  • LSB
  • USB
  • DSB
  • SSB
What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?
  • 85 Hz
  • 170 Hz
  • 425 Hz
  • 850 Hz
was G2E15
Which of the following is a requirement required when using FT8?the FT8 digital mode?
  • A special hardware modem
  • Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
  • Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
  • A vertically polarized antenna
In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 digital mode operations commonly found?
  • At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
  • At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
  • In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
  • Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHzBelow the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?
  • Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
  • Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
  • Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
  • Send a NAK coderesponse continuously so that the sending station must stand by
Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?
  • Send an email to the system control operator
  • Send QRL in Morse code
  • Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
  • Transmit a connect message on the station'’s published frequency
- NEW -
What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?
  • To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
  • To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
  • To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
  • To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
- NEW -
Which of the following describes Winlink?
  • An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
  • A form of Packet Radio
  • A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?
  • Terminal Node Controller
  • Gateway
  • RJ-45
  • Printer/Server
What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?
  • The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
  • You may have selected the wrong baud rate
  • You may be listening on the wrong sideband
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
Which of the following is a common location for FT8?
  • Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
  • Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
  • Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
  • Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
Subelement G3
RADIO WAVE PROPAGATIONRadio Wave Propagation
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 13
  • Total questions: 37
Section G3A
Sunspots and solar radiation; ionospheric disturbances; propagation forecasting and geomagnetic field and stability indices
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 7
  • Total questions: 14
What is the significance of the How does a higher sunspot number with regard to affect HF propagation?
  • Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
  • Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
  • A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
  • A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbancesudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation? of HF radio waves?
  • It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
  • It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
  • It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
  • None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flaresflare to affect radio propagation on Earth?
  • 28 days
  • 1 to 2 hours
  • 8 minutes
  • 20 to 40 hours
Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?
  • 80 meters and 160 meters
  • 60 meters and 40 meters
  • 30 meters and 20 meters
  • 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
What is the solar flux index?
  • A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
  • A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
  • Another name for the American sunspot number
  • A measure of solar radiation at with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters wavelength
What is a geomagnetic storm?
  • A sudden drop in the solar flux index
  • A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
  • Ripples in the geomagnetic forceionosphere
  • A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field's magnetosphere
At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
  • At the summer solstice
  • Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
  • Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
  • At any point in the solar cycleAt any point
Which of the following effects How can a geomagnetic storm have on radio affect HF propagation?
  • ImprovedImprove high-latitude HF propagation
  • Degraded high-latitude HFDegrade ground wave propagation
  • ImprovedImprove ground wave propagation
  • Degraded ground waveDegrade high-latitude HF propagation
What benefit How can high geomagnetic activity have on benefit radio communications?
  • Auroras Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
  • HigherIncreases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
  • ImprovedImprove HF long path propagation
  • ReducedReduce long delayed echoes
What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a roughly 26- to 28-day cycle?
  • Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
  • Cyclic variation in Earth'’s radiation belts
  • The sun's rotation on Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
  • The position of the moonMoon in its orbit
How long does it take charged particles from a coronal mass ejectionsejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?
  • 28 days
  • 14 days
  • 4 to 8 minutes
  • 20 to 40 hours15 hours to several days
What does the K-index measure?indicate?
  • The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sunsun
  • The short-term stability of Earth's magnetic’s geomagnetic field
  • The The short-term stability of the sun'Sun’s magnetic field
  • The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
What does the A-index measure?indicate?
  • The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sunsun
  • The amount of polarization of the sun'Sun’s electric field
  • The long-term stability of Earth'’s geomagnetic field
  • The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
How are How is long distance radio communicationscommunication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?
  • HF communications areHF communication is improved
  • HF communications areHF communication is disturbed
  • VHF/UHF ducting is improved
  • VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
Section G3B
Maximum Usable Frequency; Lowest Usable Frequency; short path and long path propagation; determining propagation conditions; ionospheric refraction
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?
  • Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
  • Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
  • Check the strength of TV signals from western Europe
  • Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?
  • Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
  • Signal strength increased by 3 dB
  • The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
  • A slightly delayed echo might be heard
What factors affect the MUF?
  • Path distance and location
  • Time of day and season
  • Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
  • All these choices are correct
Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?
  • Select a frequency just Just below the MUF
  • Select a frequency just Just above the LUF
  • Select a frequency just Just below the critical frequency
  • Select a frequency just Just above the critical frequency
- NEW -
Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?
  • Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
  • Check the A-index
  • Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
  • All these choices are correct
What usually happens to How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF? when they are sent into the ionosphere?
  • They are bentrefracted back to Earth
  • They pass through the ionosphere
  • They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
  • They are bentrefracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?
  • They are bentrefracted back to Earth
  • They pass through the ionosphere
  • They are completely absorbed byattenuated before reaching the destinationionosphere
  • They are bentrefracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
What does LUF stand for?
  • The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
  • The Longest Universal Function Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radiusbetween two points
  • The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
  • The Longest Universal Function Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutesa 24-hour period
What does MUF stand for?
  • The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
  • The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
  • The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
  • The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth'’s surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
  • 180 miles
  • 1,200 miles
  • 2,500 miles
  • 12,000 miles
What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth'’s surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
  • 180 miles
  • 1,200 miles
  • 2,500 miles
  • 12,000 miles
What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?
  • No HF radio frequency will support ordinary skywave communications Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over thethat path
  • HF communications over the path are enhanced
  • Double -hop propagation along the path is more common
  • Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
was G2D11
Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?
  • Poor propagation at any time of day
  • World-wide propagation during the daylight hours
  • Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
  • High levels of atmospheric noise or "static"
Section G3C
Ionospheric layersregions; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS)Near Vertical Incidence Skywave
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
Where on Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?
  • Where the sun is overhead
  • Where the sun is on the opposite side of Earth
  • Where the sun is rising
  • Where the sun has just set
Which ionospheric layerregion is closest to the surface of Earth?
  • The D layerThe D region
  • The E layerThe E region
  • The F1 layerThe F1 region
  • The F2 layerThe F2 region
- NEW -
What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?
  • The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
  • The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
  • The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
  • The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?
  • Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
  • Because of the Doppler effect
  • Because it is the highest ionospheric region
  • Because of temperature inversionsmeteor trails at that level
What does the term "“critical angle"” mean, as used inapplied to radio wave propagation?
  • The long path azimuth of a distant station
  • The short path azimuth of a distant station
  • The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
  • The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
Why is long-distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter,-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?
  • The F layerregion absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
  • The F layerregion is unstable during daylight hours
  • The D layerregion absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
  • The E layerregion is unstable during daylight hours
What is a characteristic of HF scatter?
  • Phone signals have high intelligibility
  • Signals have a fluttering sound
  • There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
  • Scatter propagation occurs only at night
What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
  • The ionospheric layerregion involved is unstable
  • Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
  • The E- region is not present
  • Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths
Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
  • Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
  • Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
  • Propagation is throughvia ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
  • Propagation is throughvia ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station'’s skip zone?
  • Faraday rotation
  • Scatter
  • Chordal hop
  • Short-path
What is Near Vertical Incidence Skywavenear vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?
  • Propagation near the MUF
  • Short distance MF or HF propagation usingat high elevation angles
  • Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
  • Double hop propagation near the LUF
Which ionospheric layerregion is the most absorbent of long skip signals signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours? on frequencies below 10 MHz?
  • The F2 layerThe F2 region
  • The F1 layerThe F1 region
  • The E layerThe E region
  • The D layerThe D region
Subelement G4
AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICESAmateur Radio Practices
  • Removed questions: 14
  • New questions: 8
  • Updated questions: 25
  • Total questions: 60
Section G4A
Station operationconfiguration and operationsetup
  • Removed questions: 7
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 7
  • Total questions: 13
REMOVED
What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?
  • The radio is operating at half power
  • The transceiver is operating from an external power source
  • The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
  • The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
REMOVED
What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?
  • Balanced modulator
  • SWR bridge
  • Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
  • Q multiplier
REMOVED
What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?
  • Insufficient drive power
  • Low input SWR
  • Shorting the input signal to ground
  • Excessive drive power
REMOVED
Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?
  • To prevent stations from interfering with one another
  • To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
  • To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
  • To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
REMOVED
Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?
  • To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency
  • To change frequency rapidly
  • To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
  • To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency
REMOVED
Which of the following is a common use for the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?
  • To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
  • To permit full duplex operation - that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
  • To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
  • To facilitate computer interface
REMOVED
Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?
  • The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter
  • The transmitter signal is distorted
  • Frequent connection timeouts
  • All these choices are correct
What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
  • To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
  • To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
  • To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
  • To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequenciesTo enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
What is one advantage of selectingthe benefit of using the opposite, or " or “reverse,"” sideband when receiving CW? signals on a typical HF transceiver?
  • Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
  • More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
  • It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
  • Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
was G4A16
How does a noise blanker work?
  • By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
  • By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
  • By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
  • By clipping noise peaks
What reading on the is the effect on plate current meter of the correct setting of a vacuum -tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning ’s TUNE control?
  • A pronounced peak
  • A pronounced dip
  • No change will be observed
  • A slow, rhythmic oscillation
What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?
  • To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
  • To reduce harmonic radiation
  • To reduce distortion due to To prevent excessive drive
  • To increase overall efficiency
- NEW -
What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?
  • Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
  • Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
  • Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
  • All these choices are correct
was G4A17
What happens as the a receiver’s noise reduction control level in a receiver is increased?
  • Received signals may become distorted
  • Received frequency may become unstable
  • CW signals may become severely attenuated
  • Received frequency may shift several kHz
What is the correct adjustment for the load or couplingLOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?
  • Minimum SWR on the antenna
  • Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
  • Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
  • MaximumDesired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
- NEW -
What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?
  • To prevent key clicks on CW
  • To prevent transient overmodulation
  • To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
  • To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
What is the purposefunction of an electronic keyer?
  • Automatic transmit/receive switching
  • Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
  • VOX operationTo allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
  • Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
was G4A14
What is likely to happen if a transceiver's Why should the ALC system is not set properly be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals? with the radio using single sideband mode?
  • ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
  • Improper The ALC action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
  • When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?
  • To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
  • To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
  • To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
  • To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?
  • To reduce signalTo prevent receiver overload due to from strong incoming signals
  • To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
  • To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
  • To reduce excessive audio level on strong signalsTo slow down received CW signals for better copy
Section G4B
TestTests and monitoringtest equipment; two-tone test
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 13
REMOVED
Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?
  • A field strength meter
  • An antenna noise bridge
  • A multimeter
  • A Q meter
REMOVED
Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?
  • The radiation resistance of an antenna
  • The radiation pattern of an antenna
  • The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
  • The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
REMOVED
What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?
  • Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
  • Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
  • The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
  • Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
REMOVED
What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with digital readout?
  • When testing logic circuits
  • When high precision is desired
  • When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
  • When adjusting tuned circuits
What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?
  • An ohmmeter
  • A signal generator
  • An ammeter
  • An oscilloscope
Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?
  • An oscilloscope uses less power
  • Complex impedances can be easily measured
  • Greater precisionInput impedance is much lower
  • Complex waveforms can be measured
Which of the following is the best instrument to use whenfor checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?
  • An oscilloscope
  • A field strength meter
  • A sidetone monitor
  • A wavemeter
What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
  • The local oscillator of the transmitter
  • An external RF oscillator
  • The transmitter balanced mixer output
  • The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
Why is Why do voltmeters have high input impedance? desirable for a voltmeter?
  • It improves the frequency response
  • It allows for higher voltages to be safely measuredIt decreases battery consumption in the meter
  • It improves the resolution of the readings
  • It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
What is an advantage of a digital voltmetermultimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?voltmeter?
  • Better for measuring computer circuits
  • Less prone to overloadBetter for RF measurements
  • BetterHigher precision for most uses
  • Faster response
What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?
  • Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
  • Two non-harmonically related audio signals
  • Two swept frequency tones
  • Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
was G4B15
What type of transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?
  • Linearity
  • Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
  • Percentage of frequency modulation
  • Percentage of carrier phase shift
- NEW -
When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?
  • When testing logic circuits
  • When high precision is desired
  • When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
  • When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
  • Standing wave ratio
  • Antenna front-to-back ratio
  • RF interference
  • Radio wave propagation
Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?
  • Receiver
  • Transmitter
  • Antenna and feed line
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?
  • Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
  • Received power that interferes with SWR readings
  • Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
  • All these choices are correct
What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?system?
  • Measuring the frontFront-to-back ratio of an antenna
  • Power output from a transmitterMeasuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
  • Determining the impedance Impedance of coaxial cable
  • Determining the gain Gain of a directional antenna
Section G4C
Interference to consumer electronics; grounding and bonding; DSP
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 8
  • Total questions: 12
Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?devices?
  • Bypass inductor
  • Bypass capacitor
  • Forward-biased diode
  • Reverse-biased diode
Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?
  • Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
  • Lack of rectification of the transmitter'’s signal in power conductors
  • Arcing at a poor electrical connection
  • Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is experiencing RF interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?
  • A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
  • On-and-off humming or clicking
  • Distorted speech
  • Clearly audible speech
What is the effect on sound is heard from an audio device when there is experiencing RF interference from a nearby CW transmitter?
  • On-and-off humming or clicking
  • A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
  • A chirpy CW signal
  • Severely distorted audio
What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?
  • Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
  • Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
  • The ground rod is resonant
  • The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
What effect can be caused byis a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?
  • Overheating of ground straps
  • Corrosion of the ground rod
  • High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
  • A ground loop
Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of in lightning protection ground connections?rods?
  • A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strikeThe resistance of solder is too high
  • Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
  • Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
  • All these choices are correctA soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
  • PlacingPlace a ferrite choke aroundon the cable
  • Adding series capacitors Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signalconductors
  • Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interferenceAdding shunt inductors to the conductors
  • AddingAdd an additional insulating jacket to the cable
How can a the effects of ground loops be minimized?loop be avoided?
  • Connect all ground conductors in series
  • Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
  • Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
  • Bond equipment enclosures togetherConnect all ground conductors to a single point
What could be a symptom of caused by a ground loop somewhere in your station’s audio connections??
  • You receive reports of "hum"“hum” on your station'’s transmitted signal
  • The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
  • An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
  • You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
What technique helps to minimize RF "“hot spots"” in an amateur station?
  • Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
  • Using surge suppressor power outlets
  • Bonding all equipment enclosures together
  • LowPlacing low-pass filters on all feed lines
was G4C13
Why must theall metal enclosure of every item of enclosures of station equipment be grounded?
  • It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
  • It prevents signal overload
  • It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
  • It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
Section G4D
Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
Where is an S meter found?
  • In a receiver
  • In an SWR bridge
  • In a transmitter
  • In a conductance bridge
What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?
  • Increase the intelligibility apparent loudness of transmitted phonevoice signals during poor conditions
  • Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
  • Prevent distortion of voice signals
  • Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
Which of the following describes how How does a speech processor affects a transmitted affect a single sideband phone signal?
  • It increases peak power
  • It increases average power
  • It reduces harmonic distortion
  • It reduces intermodulation distortion
Which ofWhat is the following can be the result effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?
  • Distorted speech
  • SplatterExcess intermodulation products
  • Excessive background noisepickup
  • All these choices are correct
What does an S meter measure?
  • ConductanceCarrier suppression
  • Impedance
  • Received signal strength
  • Transmitter power output
How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
  • It is 10 times less powerful
  • It is 20 times less powerful
  • It is 20 times more powerful
  • It is 100 times more powerful
- NEW -
How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?
  • 6 dB
  • 12 dB
  • 15 dB
  • 18 dB
How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
  • Approximately 1.5 times
  • Approximately 2 times
  • Approximately 4 times
  • Approximately 8 times
What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
  • 7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
  • 7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
  • 7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
  • 7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
  • 14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
  • 14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
  • 14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
  • 14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
How close to the lower edge of the a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?
  • At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
  • At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
  • At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
  • At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
How close to the upper edge of the a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?
  • At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
  • At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
  • At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
  • At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
Section G4E
HF mobile radio installationsMobile and portable HF stations; alternative energy source operation
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?
  • Photovoltaic conversion
  • Photon emission
  • Photosynthesis
  • Photon decomposition
REMOVED
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?
  • The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
  • The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
  • A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
  • All these choices are correct
What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?
  • To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
  • To reduce radiation resistanceTo allow automatic band changing
  • To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
  • To lower the radiation angleTo allow remote tuning
What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?
  • To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
  • To increase the "Q"“Q” of the antenna
  • To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
  • To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 -watt HF mobile installation?
  • To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
  • To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
  • To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission lineresistor wire
  • To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission lineresistor wire
Why is it best NOT to draw the Why should DC power for a 100 -watt HF transceiver from not be supplied by a vehicle'’s auxiliary power socket?
  • The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
  • The socket'’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
  • The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
  • Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?
  • "“Picket fencing”"
  • The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
  • Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
  • FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?
  • Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
  • Q of the antenna will be very lowShort antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
  • Operating bandwidth may be very limited
  • Harmonic radiation may increase
Which of the following may cause receive interference in a radio to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?
  • The battery charging system
  • The fuel delivery system
  • The vehicle The control computerscomputer
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?
  • Series-parallel
  • Shunt
  • Bypass
  • Full-wave bridge
What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?
  • 0.02 VDC
  • 0.5 VDC
  • 0.2 VDC
  • 1.38 VDC
What is the reason that Why should a series diode isbe connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?
  • The diode serves to regulateTo prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
  • The diode prevents self-To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
  • The diode limits To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
  • The diode greatly increasesTo prevent damage to the efficiency during times of battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
- NEW -
What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?
  • Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
  • Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
  • A series resistor must be in place
  • The solar panel must have a charge controller
Subelement G5
ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLESElectrical Principles
  • Removed questions: 10
  • New questions: 8
  • Updated questions: 8
  • Total questions: 40
Section G5A
Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance transformation; resonancematching
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?
  • The source delivers minimum power to the load
  • The electrical load is shorted
  • No current can flow through the circuit
  • The source can deliver maximum power to the load
REMOVED
Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?
  • Insert an LC network between the two circuits
  • Reduce the power output of the first circuit
  • Increase the power output of the first circuit
  • Insert a circulator between the two circuits
- NEW -
What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?
  • Resonance causes impedance to be very high
  • Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
  • Resonance causes impedance to be very low
  • Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
What is reactance?
  • Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
  • Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
  • Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistanceA property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
  • Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductanceA large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
Which of the following causesis opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?
  • Conductance
  • Reluctance
  • Admittance
  • Reactance
Which of the following causesis opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
  • Conductance
  • Reluctance
  • Reactance
  • Admittance
How does an inductor react to AC?
  • As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
  • As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
  • As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
  • As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
How does a capacitor react to AC?
  • As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
  • As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
  • As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
  • As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
- NEW -
What is the term for the inverse of impedance?
  • Conductance
  • Susceptance
  • Reluctance
  • Admittance
was G5A01
What is impedance?
  • The ratio of current to voltageThe electric charge stored by a capacitor
  • The product of current and voltageThe inverse of resistance
  • The opposition to the flow of The ratio of voltage to current in an AC circuit
  • The product of current and reactanceThe force of repulsion between two similar electric fields
What unit is used to measure reactance?
  • Farad
  • Ohm
  • Ampere
  • Siemens
Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?
  • A transformer
  • A Pi-network
  • A length of transmission line
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
What letter is used to represent reactance?
  • Z
  • X
  • B
  • Y
- NEW -
What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?
  • Current and voltage are equal
  • Resistance is cancelled
  • The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
  • Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
Section G5B
The decibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations; sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) values; PEP calculations
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 6
  • Total questions: 14
What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?
  • Approximately 2 dB
  • Approximately 3 dB
  • Approximately 6 dB
  • Approximately 9 dB12 dB
How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive a circuit of parallel resistors?circuit?
  • It equals the average of eachthe branch currentscurrent
  • It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
  • It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
  • It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
How many watts of electrical power are usedconsumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 -ohm load?
  • 0.5 watts
  • 200 watts
  • 400 watts
  • 3200 watts
How many watts of electrical power are usedconsumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
  • 2.4 watts
  • 24 watts
  • 6 watts
  • 60 watts
How many watts are dissipatedconsumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1250 1,250-ohm resistance?
  • Approximately 61 milliwatts
  • Approximately 61 watts
  • Approximately 11 milliwatts
  • Approximately 11 watts
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 -ohm dummy load? connected to the transmitter output?
  • 1.4 watts
  • 100 watts
  • 353.5 watts
  • 400 watts
What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?
  • The peak-to-peak value
  • The peak value
  • The RMS value
  • The reciprocal of the RMS value
What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120.0 volts?
  • 84.8 volts
  • 169.7 volts
  • 240.0 volts
  • 339.4 volts
What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
  • 8.5 volts
  • 12 volts
  • 24 volts
  • 34 volts
What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?
  • 10.9 percent
  • 12.2 percent
  • 20.6 percent
  • 25.9 percent
What is the ratio of peak envelope power PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?
  • 0.707
  • 1.00
  • 1.414
  • 2.00
What would be is the RMS voltage across a 50 -ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?
  • 173 volts
  • 245 volts
  • 346 volts
  • 692 volts
What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if anthe average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates power is 1060 watts?
  • 530 watts
  • 1060 watts
  • 1500 watts
  • 2120 watts
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load? ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?
  • 8.75 watts
  • 625 watts
  • 2500 watts
  • 5000 watts
Section G5C
Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers
  • Removed questions: 8
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
What happens if a signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?
  • The output voltage is multiplied by 4
  • The output voltage is divided by 4
  • Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
  • Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
REMOVED
Which of the following components increases the total resistance of a resistor?
  • A parallel resistor
  • A series resistor
  • A series capacitor
  • A parallel capacitor
REMOVED
What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?
  • 0.30 ohms
  • 0.33 ohms
  • 33.3 ohms
  • 300 ohms
REMOVED
If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?
  • 1500 ohms
  • 90 ohms
  • 150 ohms
  • 175 ohms
REMOVED
What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
  • 2370 volts
  • 540 volts
  • 26.7 volts
  • 5.9 volts
REMOVED
What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?
  • 12.2 to 1
  • 24.4 to 1
  • 150 to 1
  • 300 to 1
REMOVED
What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 picofarad (pF) capacitor?
  • 0.22
  • 2.2
  • 22
  • 220
REMOVED
What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?
  • 47
  • 0.47
  • 47,000
  • 4.7
What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?
  • Capacitive coupling
  • Displacement current coupling
  • Mutual inductance
  • Mutual capacitance
- NEW -
What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?
  • The input voltage is multiplied by 4
  • The input voltage is divided by 4
  • Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
  • Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
was G5C15
What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, -, a 20-, and a 50 -ohm resistor connected in parallel?
  • 5.9 ohms
  • 0.17 ohms
  • 10000 ohms17 ohms
  • 80 ohms
- NEW -
What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?
  • 300 ohms
  • 150 ohms
  • 75 ohms
  • 67 ohms
was G5C16
Why is the conductor of the primary winding of manywire of a voltage step-up transformers transformer usually a larger in diameter size than the conductor that of the secondary winding?
  • To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
  • To accommodate the higher current of the primary
  • To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
  • To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
- NEW -
What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?
  • 360 volts
  • 120 volts
  • 40 volts
  • 25.5 volts
- NEW -
What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?
  • 3.5 to 1
  • 12 to 1
  • 24 to 1
  • 144 to 1
What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 -nanofarad capacitors and one 750 -picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?
  • 576.9 nanofarads
  • 17331,733 picofarads
  • 35833,583 picofarads
  • 10.750 nanofarads
What is the capacitance of three 100 -microfarad capacitors connected in series?
  • 0.300.33 microfarads
  • 0.333.0 microfarads
  • 33.3 microfarads
  • 300 microfarads
What is the inductance of three 10 -millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
  • 0.30 henries
  • 3.3 henries
  • 3.3 millihenries
  • 30 millihenries
What is the inductance of a 20 circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 -millihenry inductor?
  • 0.07 millihenries7 millihenries
  • 14.3 millihenries
  • 70 millihenries
  • 10001,000 millihenries
What is the capacitance of a 20 -microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 -microfarad capacitor?
  • 0.07 microfarads
  • 14.3 microfarads
  • 70 microfarads
  • 10001,000 microfarads
Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
  • An inductor in series
  • An inductor in parallelA resistor in series
  • A capacitor in parallel
  • A capacitor in series
Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?
  • A capacitor in series
  • A resistorA capacitor in parallel
  • An inductor in parallel
  • An inductor in series
Subelement G6
CIRCUIT COMPONENTSCircuit Components
  • Removed questions: 5
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 9
  • Total questions: 23
Section G6A
Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers; solid-state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 8
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?
  • Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
  • Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
  • The capacitor could overheat and explode
  • All these choices are correct
What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 -volt lead-acid battery?
  • 6 volts
  • 8.5 volts
  • 10.5 volts
  • 12 volts
What is an advantage of the batteries with low internal resistance? of nickel-cadmium batteries?
  • Long life
  • High discharge current
  • High voltage
  • Rapid recharge
What is the approximate junctionforward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?
  • 0.1 volt
  • 0.3 volts
  • 0.7 volts
  • 1.0 volts
Which of the following is an advantage characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?
  • Tight tolerance
  • Much less leakage than any other type
  • High capacitance for a given volume
  • Inexpensive RF capacitor
What is the approximate junctionforward threshold voltage of a conventional silicon junction diode?
  • 0.1 volt
  • 0.3 volts
  • 0.7 volts
  • 1.0 volts
Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?
  • The resistor'’s tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit
  • The resistor'’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
  • The resistor could overheat
  • The resistor'’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch? in a logic circuit?
  • Its saturation Saturation and cutoff regions
  • ItsThe active region (between the cutoff and saturation) regions)
  • Its peak Peak and valley current points
  • Its enhancement Enhancement and depletion modes
was G6A14
Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?
  • Tight tolerance
  • High stability
  • High capacitance for given volume
  • Comparatively low cost
Which of the following describes theMOSFET construction? of a MOSFET?
  • The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
  • The gate is separated from the channel withby a thin insulating layer
  • The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
  • The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?
  • Control grid
  • HeaterSuppressor grid
  • Screen grid
  • Trigger electrode
What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?
  • Its reactance increases
  • Harmonics are generated
  • It becomes capacitive
  • Catastrophic failure is likely
What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?
  • To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
  • To increase efficiency
  • To increase the control grid resistance
  • To decrease plate resistance
Section G6B
Analog and digital integrated circuits (ICs); microprocessors; memory; I/O devices; microwave ICs (MMICs); display devices; RF connectors; ferrite cores
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
What is meant by the term ROM?
  • Resistor Operated Memory
  • Read Only Memory
  • Random Operational Memory
  • Resistant to Overload Memory
REMOVED
What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?
  • It is resistant to radiation damage
  • It is resistant to high temperatures
  • The stored information is maintained even if power is removed
  • The stored information cannot be changed once written
REMOVED
Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?
  • It utilizes ambient or back lighting
  • It offers a wide dynamic range
  • It consumes relatively high power
  • It has relatively short lifetime
REMOVED
Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?
  • Octal
  • RJ-11
  • PL-259
  • DB-25
What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?
  • Its conductivity
  • Its thickness
  • The composition, or "mix,"“mix,” of materials used
  • The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
What is meant by the term MMIC?
  • Multi-MegabyteMode Integrated Circuit
  • Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
  • Military ManufacturedMetal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
  • Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?
  • Low power consumption
  • High power handling capability
  • Better suited for RF amplification
  • Better suited for power supply regulation
- NEW -
What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?
  • 50 MHz
  • 500 MHz
  • 4 GHz
  • 40 GHz
was G6A08
What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?
  • Large values of inductance may be obtained
  • The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
  • Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
  • All these choices are correct
What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
  • Digital
  • MMIC
  • Programmable Logic
  • Analog
Which of the following describes a type N connector?
  • A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
  • A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
  • A low noise figure VHF connectorA threaded connector used for hydraulic systems
  • A nickel plated version of the PL-259An audio connector used in surround-sound installations
How is an LED biased when emitting light?
  • Beyond cutoffIn the tunnel-effect region
  • At the Zener voltage
  • Reverse biased
  • Forward biased
How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?
  • By creating an impedance in the current'’s path
  • It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
  • By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
  • Ferrites expel magnetic fields
What is a type an SMA connector?
  • A type-S to type-M adaptorA large bayonet connector usable at power levels more than 1 KW
  • A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
  • A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
  • A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?
  • PL-259
  • BNC
  • RCA Phono
  • Type N
Subelement G7
PRACTICAL CIRCUITSPractical Circuits
  • Removed questions: 9
  • New questions: 5
  • Updated questions: 9
  • Total questions: 38
Section G7A
Power supplies; schematic symbols
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 13
What useful feature does is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor? provide?
  • It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
  • It ensures that It discharges the filter capacitors are discharged when power is removed
  • It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
  • It eliminates ground loop current
Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?
  • Diodes
  • Transformers and transducers
  • Capacitors and inductorsQuartz crystals
  • All these choices are correctCapacitors and inductors
Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?
  • Full-wave
  • Full-wave bridge
  • Half-wave
  • Synchronous
What is an advantage characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?
  • Only one diode is required
  • The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
  • More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
  • The output voltage is two times the peak outputinput voltage of the transformer
What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?
  • 90 degrees
  • 180 degrees
  • 270 degrees
  • 360 degrees
What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?
  • 90 degrees
  • 180 degrees
  • 270 degrees
  • 360 degrees
What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
  • A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
  • A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
  • A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
  • A steady DC voltage
Which of the following is an advantage characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?
  • Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
  • Fewer circuit components are required
  • High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
  • Inherently more stableAll these choices are correct
Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?
  • Symbol 2
  • Symbol 5
  • Symbol 1
  • Symbol 4
Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?
  • Symbol 4
  • Symbol 1
  • Symbol 11
  • Symbol 5
Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?
  • Symbol 1
  • Symbol 2
  • Symbol 7
  • Symbol 11
Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?
  • Symbol 4
  • Symbol 7
  • Symbol 6
  • Symbol 1
Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?
  • Symbol 7
  • Symbol 11
  • Symbol 6
  • Symbol 1
Section G7B
Digital circuits; amplifiers and oscillators
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?
  • Output is high when either or both inputs are low
  • Output is high only when both inputs are high
  • Output is low when either or both inputs are high
  • Output is low only when both inputs are high
What is the reason forpurpose of neutralizing the final an amplifier? stage of a transmitter?
  • To limit the modulation index
  • To eliminate self-oscillations
  • To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
  • To keep the carrier on frequency
Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?
  • Class A
  • Class B
  • Class AB
  • Class C
Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?
  • Output is high when either or both inputs are low
  • Output is high only when both inputs are high
  • Output is low when either or both inputs are high
  • Output is low only when both inputs are high
- NEW -
In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?
  • 100%
  • More than 50% but less than 100%
  • 50%
  • Less than 50%
How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?
  • 3
  • 6
  • 8
  • 16
What is a shift register?
  • A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
  • An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
  • A digital mixer
  • An analog mixer
Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?
  • An amplifier and a divider
  • A frequency multiplier and a mixer
  • A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
  • A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?
  • Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
  • Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
  • Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
  • Add the RF input power to the DC output power
What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?
  • The number of stages in the counter
  • The number of stages in the divider
  • The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
  • The time delay of the lag circuit
Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?
  • Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
  • An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
  • A Class C high efficiency amplifier
  • An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
  • SSB
  • FM
  • AM
  • All these choices are correct
Section G7C
Receivers and transmittersTransceiver design; filters; oscillators; digital signal processing (DSP)
  • Removed questions: 8
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 5
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?
  • Discriminator
  • Detector
  • IF amplifier
  • Balanced modulator
REMOVED
What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?
  • Balanced modulator
  • IF amplifier
  • Mixer
  • Detector
REMOVED
What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?
  • RF oscillator
  • IF filter
  • Balanced modulator
  • Product detector
REMOVED
What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?
  • Substantially higher
  • About the same
  • Substantially lower
  • Twice the transmission line impedance
REMOVED
What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?
  • RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
  • RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
  • HF oscillator, mixer, detector
  • HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier
REMOVED
What circuit is used in analog FM receivers to convert IF output signals to audio?
  • Product detector
  • Phase inverter
  • Mixer
  • Discriminator
REMOVED
What is meant by the term "software-defined radio" (SDR)?
  • A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
  • A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
  • A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
  • A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
REMOVED
Which of the following is a typical application for a Direct Digital Synthesizer?
  • A high-stability variable frequency oscillator in a transceiver
  • A digital voltmeter
  • A digital mode interface between a computer and a transceiver
  • A high-sensitivity radio direction finder
Which of the following What circuit is used to process signals fromselect one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?
  • Carrier oscillator
  • Filter
  • IF amplifier
  • RF amplifier
- NEW -
What output is produced by a balanced modulator?
  • Frequency modulated RF
  • Audio with equalized frequency response
  • Audio extracted from the modulation signal
  • Double-sideband modulated RF
was G5A08
What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output??
  • To minimize transmitter power output
  • To maximizeTo present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed linetransfer of power
  • To reduce power supply ripple
  • To minimize radiation resistance
- NEW -
How is a product detector used?
  • Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
  • Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
  • Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
  • Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
Which of the following is an advantage characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
  • Wide Extremely narrow tuning range and no need for band switching
  • Relatively high-power output
  • Pure sine wave outputRelatively low power consumption
  • Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
was G4C12
Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF digital signal processing (DSP) filter as compared to an analog filter?
  • A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
  • Fewer digital components are required
  • Mixing products are greatly reduced
  • The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
was G7C15
What term specifies a filter'’s attenuation inside its passband?
  • Insertion loss
  • Return loss
  • Q
  • Ultimate rejection
- NEW -
Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?
  • Input amplifier gain
  • Demodulator stage bandwidth
  • Input amplifier noise figure
  • All these choices are correct
What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?
  • Zero
  • 90 degrees
  • 180 degrees
  • 45 degrees
What is an advantage of using I and Q signals in-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?
  • The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
  • All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing.
  • Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
  • Converting Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog creates mixing products
- NEW -
Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?
  • Filtering
  • Detection
  • Modulation
  • All these choices are correct
What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter'’s output power is less than half the input power?
  • Notch frequency
  • Neper frequency
  • Cutoff frequency
  • Rolloff frequency
What term specifies a filter'’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?
  • Notch depth
  • Rolloff
  • Insertion loss
  • Ultimate rejection
The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?
  • Upper and lower half-power
  • Cutoff and rolloff
  • Pole and zero
  • Image and harmonic
Subelement G8
SIGNALS AND EMISSIONSSignals and Emissions
  • Removed questions: 6
  • New questions: 11
  • Updated questions: 6
  • Total questions: 42
Section G8A
Carriers and modulation: AM; FM; , FM, and single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation; overmodulation; link budgets and link margins
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 14
How is an FSK signaldirect binary FSK modulation generated?
  • By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
  • By changing an oscillator'’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
  • By using a transceiver'’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
  • By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?
  • Phase convolution
  • Phase modulation
  • Phase transformation
  • Phase inversion
What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?
  • Frequency convolution
  • Frequency transformation
  • Frequency conversion
  • Frequency modulation
What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?
  • Multiplex modulation
  • Phase modulation
  • Amplitude modulation
  • Pulse modulation
What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?
  • Power modulationFrequency shift keying
  • Phase modulation
  • Frequency modulation
  • Amplitude modulation
Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?
  • It is sideband sensitive
  • Its encoding provides error correction
  • Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
  • All these choices are correct
Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?
  • Single sideband
  • DoubleVestigial sideband
  • Phase modulation
  • Frequency modulation
Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?
  • Insufficient audio
  • Insufficient bandwidth
  • Frequency drift
  • Excessive bandwidth
What type of modulation is used by FT8?the FT8 digital mode?
  • 8-tone frequency shift keying
  • Vestigial sideband
  • Amplitude compressed AM
  • Direct 8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
What is meant by the term "“flat-topping,",” when referring to a single sideband an amplitude-modulated phone signal?transmission?
  • Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
  • The transmitter'’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
  • Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
  • The transmitter'’s carrier is properly suppressed
What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?
  • The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
  • The carrier frequency that contains the signal
  • Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
  • The bandwidth of the modulated signal
- NEW -
What is QPSK modulation?
  • Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
  • Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
  • Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
  • Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
- NEW -
What is a link budget?
  • The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
  • The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
  • The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
  • The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
- NEW -
What is link margin?
  • The opposite of fade margin
  • The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
  • Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
  • Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
Section G8B
Frequency mixing; multiplication; changing; bandwidths of various modes; deviation; duty cycle; intermodulation
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 13
REMOVED
If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?
  • Quadrature noise
  • Image response
  • Mixer interference
  • Intermediate interference
REMOVED
What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR-III signal at maximum data rate?
  • 31.5 Hz
  • 500 Hz
  • 1800 Hz
  • 2300 Hz
Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?
  • Image frequency
  • Local oscillator
  • RF input
  • Beat frequency oscillator
- NEW -
What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?
  • Quadrature response
  • Image response
  • Mixer interference
  • Intermediate interference
What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?
  • Heterodyning
  • Synthesizing
  • CancellationFrequency inversion
  • Phase inversioninverting
What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?
  • Mixer
  • Reactance modulator
  • Balanced converterPre-emphasis network
  • Multiplier
- NEW -
Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?
  • Second harmonics
  • Even-order
  • Odd-order
  • Intercept point
What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?
  • 3 kHz
  • 5 kHz
  • 8 kHz
  • 16 kHz
What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?
  • 101.75 Hz
  • 416.7 Hz
  • 5 kHz
  • 60 kHz
Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?
  • To aid in tuning your transmitter
  • Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter'’s average power rating
  • To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
  • To prevent overmodulationThe attenuator will have to be adjusted accordingly
Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?
  • It is required by FCC rules
  • It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
  • It improves impedance matching of the antenna
  • It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?
  • Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
  • Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
  • Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
  • Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
What combination of a mixer'’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?
  • The ratio
  • The average
  • The sum and difference
  • The arithmetic product
What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit or connection to produce unwanted spurious outputs?
  • Intermodulation
  • Heterodyning
  • Detection
  • Rolloff
- NEW -
Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?
  • 5F1-3F2
  • 3F1-F2
  • 2F1-F2
  • All these choices are correct
Section G8C
Digital emission modes
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 5
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 15
REMOVED
In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?
  • The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
  • The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
  • The receiver is busy decoding the packet
  • The entire file has been received correctly
REMOVED
What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?
  • The checksum overflows
  • The connection is dropped
  • Packets will be routed incorrectly
  • Encoding reverts to the default character set
REMOVED
How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?
  • It terminates the contact
  • It requests the packet be retransmitted
  • It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
  • It requests a change in transmitting protocol
REMOVED
What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?
  • The approximate transmitted symbol rate
  • The version of the PSK protocol
  • The year in which PSK31 was invented
  • The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?
  • WSPR
  • OliviaMFSK16
  • PSK31
  • SSB-SC
What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?
  • Directory
  • Preamble
  • Header
  • FooterTrailer
Which of the following describes Baudot code?
  • A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
  • A code using error detection and correction
  • A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
  • A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
- NEW -
In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?
  • Request retransmission of the packet
  • Packet was received without error
  • Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
  • Entire file received correctly
- NEW -
What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?
  • The checksum overflows
  • The connection is dropped
  • Packets will be routed incorrectly
  • Encoding reverts to the default character set
was G8A12
Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?
  • MSK144
  • FT8
  • AMTOR
  • MFSK32
Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?
  • Upper case letters are sent with more power
  • Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
  • Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
  • Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
- NEW -
Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?
  • Having more nodes increases signal strengths
  • If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
  • Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
  • More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data errors?packets?
  • By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
  • By using the Varicode character set
  • By transmitting redundant information with the data
  • By using a parity bit with each character
How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?
  • Dot and dash
  • On and off
  • High and low
  • Mark and space
Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?
  • Varicode
  • Viterbi
  • Volumetric
  • Binary
What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a digital data mode or RTTY signal?
  • Long path propagation
  • Backscatter propagation
  • Insufficient modulation
  • Overmodulation
Which of the following describes a waterfall display?
  • Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
  • Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
  • Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
  • Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
- NEW -
What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?
  • The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
  • The signal is S3 (weak signals)
  • The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
  • The signal is 3 dB over S9
- NEW -
Which of the following provide digital voice modes?
  • WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
  • FT8, FT4, and FST4
  • Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
  • DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
Subelement G9
ANTENNAS AND FEED LINESAntennas and Feed Lines
  • Removed questions: 6
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 17
  • Total questions: 46
Section G9A
Antenna feed Feed lines: characteristic impedance and attenuation; SWRstanding wave ratio (SWR) calculation, measurement, and effects; antenna feed point matching networks
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 8
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
  • 25 and 30 ohms
  • 50 and 75 ohms
  • 80 and 100 ohms
  • 500 and 750 ohms
REMOVED
What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?
  • 2:1
  • 1:1
  • 50:50
  • 0:0
Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?
  • The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
  • The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
  • The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
  • The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
was G9A12
What is the interactionrelationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?
  • There is no interactionrelationship between transmission line loss and SWR
  • If a transmission line is High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line, high SWR will increase the loss
  • High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
  • High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
What is the typicalnominal characteristic impedance of "“window line" parallel ” transmission line?
  • 50 ohms
  • 75 ohms
  • 100 ohms
  • 450 ohms
What might cause causes reflected power at the point where a an antenna’s feed point?line connects to an antenna?
  • Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
  • Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
  • A difference between feed- line impedance and antenna feed- point impedance
  • Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as thewith increasing frequency? of the signal it is carrying increases?
  • Attenuation is independent of frequency
  • Attenuation increases
  • Attenuation decreases
  • Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuationreaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz
In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?
  • Ohms per 10001,000 feet
  • Decibels per 10001,000 feet
  • Ohms per 100 feet
  • Decibels per 100 feet
What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna a feed line connected to an antenna??
  • The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
  • The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
  • The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths long
  • The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to :1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWRpresent a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?
  • 1 to 11:1
  • 5 to 15:1
  • Between 1 to :1 and 5 to :1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
  • Between 1 to :1 and 5 to :1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
What standing wave ratio will result when results from connecting a 50 -ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?
  • 4:1
  • 1:4
  • 2:1
  • 1:2
What standing wave ratio will result when results from connecting a 50 -ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?
  • 2:1
  • 50:11:2
  • 1:5
  • 5:1
was G9A13
What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?
  • The higher the transmission line loss,Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the linemore the SWR will read artificially low
  • The higher the transmission line loss,Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the linemore the SWR will read artificially high
  • Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the lineThe higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
  • Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
Section G9B
Basic antennasBasic dipole and monopole antennas
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 12
What is one disadvantagea characteristic of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter??
  • It must be longer than 1 wavelength
  • Station equipment may carry significant RF currentYou may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
  • It produces only vertically polarized radiation
  • It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed- point impedance of a an elevated quarter -wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?
  • Slope the radials upward
  • Slope the radials downward
  • Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
  • ShortenCoil the radials
Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave, ground-plane vertical antenna?
  • Bi-directional in azimuth
  • Isotropic
  • Hemispherical
  • Omnidirectional in azimuth
What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?
  • It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
  • It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
  • It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
  • It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees??
  • If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
  • Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
  • If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
  • If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?
  • As high as possible above the ground
  • Parallel to the antenna element
  • On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the ground
  • At the center of the antenna
How does the feed- point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 waveheight is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?
  • It steadily increases
  • It steadily decreases
  • It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
  • It is unaffected by the height above ground
How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?
  • It steadily increases
  • It steadily decreases
  • It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
  • It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?
  • Lower ground reflection losses
  • Lower feed- point impedance
  • Shorter radials
  • Lower radiation resistance
What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?
  • 8 feet
  • 16 feet
  • 24 feet
  • 33 feet
What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
  • 42 feet
  • 84 feet
  • 132 feet
  • 263 feet
What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave verticalmonopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?
  • 8 feet
  • 11 feet
  • 16 feet
  • 21 feet
Section G9C
Directional antennas
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?
  • The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer
  • There must be an open circuit in the driven element at the point opposite the feed point
  • The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent shorter than the driven element
  • The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element
REMOVED
Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?
  • A quarter-wave vertical antenna
  • An isotropic antenna
  • A directional antenna
  • An omnidirectional antenna
REMOVED
Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?
  • 1/4 wavelength
  • 1/2 wavelength
  • 3/4 wavelength
  • 1 wavelength
REMOVED
What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?
  • dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
  • dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
  • dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
  • dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
  • Larger-diameter elements
  • Closer element spacing
  • Loading coils in series with the element
  • Tapered-diameter elements
What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?
  • 1/4 wavelength
  • 1/2 wavelength
  • 3/4 wavelength
  • 1 wavelength
How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?
  • The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
  • The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
  • They are all the same length
  • Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?
  • dBi gain figures areGain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower than dBd gain figures
  • dBi gain figures areGain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
  • Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lowerdBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15
  • Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higherdBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB
How does What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors affectto a Yagi antenna?
  • Gain increases
  • Beamwidth increases
  • Front-to-back ratio decreases
  • Resonant frequency is lowerFront-to-side ratio decreases
What does "“front-to-back ratio"” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
  • The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
  • The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
  • The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
  • The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
What is meant by the "“main lobe"” of a directive antenna?
  • The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
  • The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
  • The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
  • The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
How In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?
  • Approximately 1.5 dB higher
  • Approximately 3 dB higher
  • Approximately 6 dB higher
  • Approximately 9 dB higher
Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
  • The physical length of the boom
  • The number of elements on the boom
  • The spacing of each element along the boom
  • All these choices are correct
was G9C16
What is a beta or hairpin match?
  • It is a A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
  • It is a A 1/4 wavelength section of 75 -ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
  • It is a A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
  • It is a A section of 300 ohm twinlead -ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
Which of the following is an advantagea characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?
  • It does not require that the driven element to be insulated from the boom
  • It does not require any inductors or capacitors
  • It is useful for matching multiband antennas
  • All these choices are correct
Section G9D
Specialized antenna types and applicationsantennas
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 12
Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a Near Vertical Incidence Skywavenear vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?
  • A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
  • A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
  • A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the groundA left-hand circularly polarized antenna
  • A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the groundA right-hand circularly polarized antenna
What is the feed- point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?
  • Very low
  • Approximately 50 ohms
  • Approximately 300 ohms
  • Very high
In which direction is the maximum radiation from a portable VHF/UHF "halo"“halo” antenna?
  • Broadside to the plane of the halo
  • Opposite the feed point
  • Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
  • TowardOn the same side as the feed pointhalo's supporting mast
What is the primary purposefunction of antenna traps?
  • To permitTo enable multiband operation
  • To notch spurious frequencies
  • To provide balanced feed- point impedance
  • To prevent out-of-band operation
What is an advantage of verticalvertically stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?
  • It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
  • It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
  • It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
  • It narrows the main lobe in elevation
Which of the following is an advantage of a log -periodic antenna?
  • Wide bandwidth
  • Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
  • Harmonic suppression
  • Polarization diversity
Which of the following describes a log -periodic antenna?
  • Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
  • Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
  • Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
  • SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
How does a "“screwdriver"” mobile antenna adjust its feed- point impedance?
  • By varying its body capacitance
  • By varying the base loading inductance
  • By extending and retracting the whip
  • By deploying a capacitance hat
What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?
  • Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
  • Directional transmitting for low HF bands
  • Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
  • Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/310 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?
  • In the plane of the loop
  • Broadside to the loop
  • Broadside and in the plane of the loop
  • Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
  • They present low impedance on all design frequencies
  • They must be used with an antenna tuner
  • They must be fed with open wire line
  • They have poor harmonic rejection
What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?
  • Inverted V
  • Inverted L
  • Sloper
  • Lazy H
Subelement G0
ELECTRICAL AND RF SAFETYElectrical and RF Safety
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 11
  • Total questions: 25
Section G0A
RF safety principles, rules, and guidelines; routine station evaluation
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 6
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?
  • It should not be installed higher than you can reach
  • It should not be installed in a wet area
  • It should be limited to 10 feet in height
  • It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access
What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?
  • It heats body tissue
  • It causes radiation poisoning
  • It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
  • It cools body tissue
Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?
  • Its duty cycle
  • Its frequency
  • Its power density
  • All these choices are correct
How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
  • By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
  • By calculation based on computer modeling
  • By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
  • All these choices are correct
What does "“time averaging"” mean in reference to when evaluating RF radiation exposure?
  • The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
  • The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
  • The total time of the exposure
  • The total RF exposure averaged over a certain periodtime
What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated fromby your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption??
  • Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
  • File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
  • Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?
  • Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
  • Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
  • Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
  • Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
What is the effect does transmitterof modulation duty cycle have when evaluating on RF exposure?
  • A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmittedshort-term exposure levels
  • A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmittedshort-term exposure levels
  • Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
  • High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations? when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?
  • Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
  • Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
  • Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
  • All these choices are correctContact the FCC for a visit to conduct a station evaluation
What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength??
  • A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reductionan S meter
  • A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
  • An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
  • An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
What is one thing that can should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receiveexperience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
  • Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
  • Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratioPost a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor
  • Use an Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are presentwith a higher front-to-back ratio
  • All these choices are correctTake precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction
What precaution should you takebe taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
  • Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
  • Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
  • Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
  • Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
- NEW -
What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?
  • All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
  • Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
  • Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
  • All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
Section G0B
Station safety: electrical shock, safety grounding, fusing, interlocks, and wiring,; antenna and tower safety
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 5
  • Total questions: 13
REMOVED
Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?
  • Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
  • Danger of engine over torque
  • Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
  • Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
REMOVED
What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?
  • Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
  • Insure that the generator is not grounded
  • Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
  • All these choices are correct
REMOVED
What precaution should you take whenever you adjust or repair an antenna?
  • Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
  • Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
  • Wear a radiation badge
  • All these choices are correct
Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers? in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?
  • Only the twohot wires carrying voltage
  • Only the neutral wire
  • Only the ground wire
  • All wires
According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20 -ampere circuit breaker?
  • AWG number 20
  • AWG number 16
  • AWG number 12
  • AWG number 8
Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?
  • 100 amperes30 amperes
  • 60 amperes25 amperes
  • 30 amperes20 amperes
  • 15 amperes
- NEW -
Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?
  • As close to the station equipment as possible
  • Outside the building
  • Next to the closest power pole
  • Parallel to the water supply line
Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupterground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line AC power? to a device?
  • Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carryinghot wires to the neutral wire
  • Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carryinghot wires directly to ground
  • Overvoltage on the voltage-carryinghot wires
  • All these choices are correct
Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?
  • Acceptable bandwidth limits
  • Acceptable modulation limits
  • Electrical safety insideof the stationham shack
  • RF exposure limits of the human body
Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?
  • Always hold on to the tower with one handNever lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight
  • Confirm that the beltharness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
  • Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harnessbelt D-ring
  • All these choices are correct
What should be done by any person preparing to climb before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?
  • Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
  • Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
  • Unground the base of the tower
  • All these choices are correct
Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?
  • The generator should be locatedoperated in a well-ventilated area
  • The generator must be insulated from ground
  • Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
  • All these choices are correct
Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?
  • Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
  • High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
  • Tin in the solder can "“cold flow,",” causing shorts in the circuit
  • RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
Which of the following is good practice required for lightning protection ground rods?grounds?
  • They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
  • Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
  • Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
  • They must be bonded together with all other grounds
What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?
  • To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer'’s warranty
  • To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
  • To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
  • To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
- NEW -
Where should lightning arrestors be located?
  • Where the feed lines enter the building
  • On the antenna, opposite the feed point
  • In series with each ground lead
  • At the closest power pole ground electrode
HamStudy.org™ is copyright 2025 Signal Stuff™, All rights reserved.
View Privacy Policy    |    Get help with HamStudy.org™